1 John 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Who Else?
Who else but Jesus, is the atoning sacrifice for the sake of all the sins of the whole world?
But, what does this have to do with UOJ? Again, the question must be raised, is UOJ being pulled from the text or inserted into it?
Lost in Translation?
The NIV84 renders this text with “atoning sacrifice.” Many translations use “propitiation” instead. Either way, there is a sense of the “turning away” of God’s wrath. In other words, I would argue that this verse is saying more than Jesus is the one who was sacrificed for the whole world. It is saying that Jesus is the one who turns away God’s wrath “for” the whole world. Am I admitting UOJ works well here? Not at all.
The question becomes, what is meant by turning away wrath “for” the whole world…what does “for” mean? Does it mean Jesus is the one who has already turned away the wrath of God toward all (each one) who are in the world? Or, does it mean Jesus is the one who turns away (in an ongoing manner) God’s wrath on behalf of all who are in the world, for each one as he is granted the gift of faith.
Let’s try taking off our UOJ glasses for a moment (if you have yours on, that is) and consider whether or not this verse proves UOJ or is closer to JIC. Consider which works best as I provide my own paraphrase for the verse (I’ll include the original as well for comparison).
~ Jesus is the one who turns away the wrath of God, by way of his sacrifice – wrath which is not only due to us (as believers) because of our sins, but also due to the whole world (including unbelievers) because of the whole world’s sins.
~ 1 John 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Is it even remotely possible that my paraphrase serves as a valid way of looking at the passage. If so, just remember that the burden of proof falls on the proponent of UOJ to demonstrate conclusively that 1Jn 2:2 must be understood, in light of UOJ and no other way. Otherwise, this is not a conclusive proof passage. At best, it only leaves UOJ as a possibility…which leaves JIC as a possibility as well.
See for Yourself
I encourage you to look up the verse in context as you also take into consideration how much John speaks of those who are in Christ, how to tell if you are in Christ, and so on, in the surrounding verses (1Jn 2:1-6).
Personally, I lean heavily toward the verse saying that propitiation, not only for our sins, but for the sins of the whole world, has been made and is found in Christ as a result of his sacrifice. In other words, in Christ is found the satisfaction for the wrath of God against all (the whole world’s) sin.
~ 1 John 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
So, what do you think…does UOJ or JIC work best here, in context?